is there EVER a good enough reason for a man to hit a women???? (305)

'Bonda fides' means what, exactly?

Is it about motive, or not? I don't recall philosophy, or logic conducted in the realm of 'more, or less'. Quite the opposite, in fact.

How does this relate to my post? How do I not have 'bonda fides', or motives?

I was asking for clarification.

Given your previous posts, I'm really not sure what you meant, but I did give you the benefit of the doubt, I'll grant you.

When you didn't clarify your absolute, I clarified why it was important to do so.

Your response is an ad hominem one.

But there is a link between 'just war' and 'justifying violence' as war is violent and deemed just when in defence of personal harm, albeit collectively.

Justice may also cover other areas, but does not negate other applications.

Do you feel that publicly beating a woman and having the neighbours see her snot and tears is to do with 'justice being seen to be done'? If that's the case, why is that important to you?


Your above statements are intangible to me and I don't see quite why you've put them here in this paragraph with:

But you did say earlier by way of justification for violence against cheaters something about it being possible, or likely that there would be fewer cheaters if corporal punishment, or violence, were meted out to them.

I never did say, or imply that a woman having a child on her own was a measure of failure. I argued the exact opposite with you once, if you remember?

Not that a forum debate is the place to drag up people's personal lives when you can't think of a more appropriate way to contribute, as you have done.

My goldfish died.

If I saw a woman assaulting someone, say a child or a disabled person, I'd break her jaw

However there is never any acceptable excuse for un-pre-emptive violence or domestic violence within a relationship - in either direction. Those who use violence may have it used against them.