Mark 10
“Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?”
Christ replied,
“What did Moses command you?”
They said,
"Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to dismiss her.”
Modern definition of divorce:
the legal dissolution of a marriage by a court or other competent body.
Now heres something I noticed about this concept
Official marriage documents werent invented until the md 19th century according to wiki.
And the 10 commandments are presumably written between the 16th and 13th centuries BCE to after 750 BCE.
To refer back to:
"Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to dismiss her.”
There is another discrepancy with this statement. Only scholars or man of status could read and write but the commandments were written for all and Moses had just freeed his people. So there is no way a former slave could read or write.
So its safe to say all was done by word of mouth, lets not forget the FIRST tablet had divine scripture which Moses smashed when he returned to see not only fornication but murder amongst men and and gang rape of women and highly likely children too.
Lead by an Egyptian man who was disowned by his own because of the blood markings above his door, which made him as equal as the slaves he used to oppress.
Moses with the acute sense of insight, foresight and vision, foresaw the cruelty of men even after he left this world.
See what you do not know about the first tablet was, as Moses threw the tablet, before it hit the ground a massive lightning bolt passed through the tablet shattering it into dust. For the tablet itself was Sacred and Heaven made was forbidden for it to touch the soil in the first place
Tthe lightning bolt did not stop there oh no the same bolt passed through the soil and hit an air pocket to create the greatest underground explosion.
But with a single command Moses told the earth to leave the women and innocent. Moses was so enraged with the actions of the men abusing the women and children death was their reward.
So if most of the men were killed who was the approval of divorce, by word of mouth, written for?
The women and why?
"A man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh."
How does two flesh become one?
Through a child no?
"Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate."
So with that said, divorce means abortion in the old times yes?
And that you had to obtain approval from the pregnant woman to have the abortion, so you could go f%%k another woman to get HER pregnant yes?
It was highly unlikely that a woman would want a divorce unless it was forced upon her, for their innate love and protection for a child was fierce in a cruel barbaric world they lived in.
Wouldnt adultery then in modern terms be classed as murder?
Food for thought?
Ty for reading.