THREAD IN SUPPORT OF ISRAEL (677)
chris27292729: So i built more settlements in capture land,to have more leverage in the negotiations.
Judea and Samaria was captured from whom exactly?
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WHO'S ANTI-SEMITE AND ULTRA RIGHTIST? Your discourse collapses before scientifical definitions, Conrad73.
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Wow_Factor: Judea and Samaria was captured from whom exactly?
they builting settlements outside the define borders of 1948 and 1967.Don't they????------ This thread is Archived ------
Wow_Factor: Judea and Samaria was captured from whom exactly?
I think Judea and Samaria belongs to the Palestinians, but if we look back belongs to the Ottomans. And if we go back to David and Solomon does not belong to anyone so anyone can claim it, the Palestinians also.
Centuries ago the King of Spain sent a letter to the King of France asking him to leave the French colonies in America because they belonged to the Crown of Spain.
And the King of France replied in another letter: "Tell me what part of Adam's Testament is written that and we will."
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CAN YOU HONESLY SEE TA SELF GETTIN A BIT OF PUNAAY..
ie.....A RUMMBLE IN JUNGLE..
I CANNNT.........
TAKE IT TO FB!!
ie.....A RUMMBLE IN JUNGLE..
I CANNNT.........
TAKE IT TO FB!!
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chris27292729: they builting settlements outside the define borders of 1948 and 1967.Don't they????
Both are Armistice-Lines,Not Borders!Do your Homework!
Arabs never accepted Res.181!
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chris27292729: they builting settlements outside the define borders of 1948 and 1967.Don't they????
No, you are absolutely and completely wrong. Israel is legally allowed to build in Judea and Samaria and actually only about three per cent has settlements but I prefer to call them houses.
Tell me which Law makes you think that?
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GUZMAN1: I think Judea and Samaria belongs to the Palestinians, but if we look back belongs to the Ottomans. And if we go back to David and Solomon does not belong to anyone so anyone can claim it, the Palestinians also.
Centuries ago the King of Spain sent a letter to the King of France asking him to leave the French colonies in America because they belonged to the Crown of Spain.
And the King of France replied in another letter: "Tell me what part of Adam's Testament is written that and we will."
Centuries ago the King of Spain sent a letter to the King of France asking him to leave the French colonies in America because they belonged to the Crown of Spain.
And the King of France replied in another letter: "Tell me what part of Adam's Testament is written that and we will."
You have to be kidding right?
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Wow_Factor: You have to be kidding right?
I'm afraid it is you are the one who incredibly claims that this is a serious dialogue.
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GUZMAN1: I'm afraid it is you are the one
who incredibly claims that this is a serious dialogue.
who incredibly claims that this is a serious dialogue.
I will rephrase it then. Could you please explain how you think the land that Israel is building settlements on does not belong to Israel. I do not want an opinion - I want some historical fact that Judea and Samaria does not belong to the State of Israel. I am really looking forward to an answer.
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GUZMAN1: I think Judea and Samaria belongs to the Palestinians, but if we look back belongs to the Ottomans. And if we go back to David and Solomon does not belong to anyone so anyone can claim it, the Palestinians also.
Centuries ago the King of Spain sent a letter to the King of France asking him to leave the French colonies in America because they belonged to the Crown of Spain.
And the King of France replied in another letter: "Tell me what part of Adam's Testament is written that and we will."
could have sworn the Ottomans lost it in 1918!Centuries ago the King of Spain sent a letter to the King of France asking him to leave the French colonies in America because they belonged to the Crown of Spain.
And the King of France replied in another letter: "Tell me what part of Adam's Testament is written that and we will."
It then became the British Mandate of Palestine,of which the British gave 80% to the Arabs,forming Jordan!
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Conrad73: Both are Armistice-Lines,Not Borders!
Do your Homework!
Arabs never accepted Res.181!
Is there any reason,just because Arabs,not accepted Res 181 ,to built settlements outside Res,181 borders? The settlements are homes for civilians not for Israel's security reasons.Therefor pressure,advandage and better leverage, in the negotiating table for Israel's expansion for more land.-Do your Homework!
Arabs never accepted Res.181!
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Wow_Factor: I will rephrase it then. Could you please explain how you think the land that Israel is building settlements on does not belong to Israel. I do not want an opinion - I want some historical fact that Judea and Samaria does not belong to the State of Israel. I am really looking forward to an answer.
The most obvious reason is that they were occupied by Palestinians, or Arabs, as you want to call them, before the State of Israel existed.
And possession is indicative of the lack of property title. You speak with an attorney. Has the State of Israel the title deed? or Adam's Testament?.
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chris27292729: Is there any reason,just because Arabs,not accepted Res 181 ,to built settlements outside Res,181 borders? The settlements are homes for civilians not for Israel's security reasons.Therefor pressure,advandage and better leverage, in the negotiating table for Israel's expansion for more land.-
You think about it!They rejected it,therefore it became No-Mans-Land!
They ought to have thought of that when they rejected it!
Now they are about to commit another Blunder again!
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Conrad73: You think about it!
They rejected it,therefore it became No-Mans-Land!
They ought to have thought of that when they rejected it!
Now they are about to commit another Blunder again!
They rejected it,therefore it became No-Mans-Land!
They ought to have thought of that when they rejected it!
Now they are about to commit another Blunder again!
Bring the Palestinians to trial, I would be delighted to represent them. No property title, then the possession rules.
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GUZMAN1: The most obvious reason is that they were occupied by Palestinians, or Arabs, as you want to call them, before the State of Israel existed.
And possession is indicative of the lack of property title. You speak with an attorney. Has the State of Israel the title deed? or Adam's Testament?.
And possession is indicative of the lack of property title. You speak with an attorney. Has the State of Israel the title deed? or Adam's Testament?.
These two videos explain it:
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GUZMAN1: The most obvious reason is that they were occupied by Palestinians, or Arabs, as you want to call them, before the State of Israel existed.
And possession is indicative of the lack of property title. You speak with an attorney. Has the State of Israel the title deed? or Adam's Testament?.
maybe if you rummage among some of the League Of Nations Documents!And possession is indicative of the lack of property title. You speak with an attorney. Has the State of Israel the title deed? or Adam's Testament?.
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Imposible, el concepto de soberanía de las naciones unidas no tiene nada que ver con eso.
Conrad73: maybe if you rummage among some of the League Of Nations Documents!
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Conrad73: could have sworn the Ottomans lost it in 1918!
It then became the British Mandate of Palestine,of which the British gave 80% to the Arabs,forming Jordan!
It then became the British Mandate of Palestine,of which the British gave 80% to the Arabs,forming Jordan!
Yep and the French gave their bit to the Lebanese and Syrians....Oh and the British gave Iraq their wee bit as well.
Have a look at the maps....http://focusonjerusalem.com/maproom.html
Shame folk keep dragging all this "history" up, then we show them the proof that it was totally carved up by the Brits and French to suit themselves.....Mainly because the Arabs helped them destroy the Ottoman Turks in WW1......
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Ok, I'll try again. Without examples, all partitions, each time a territory is divided, both sides minorities are persecuted and fled to his side should abandon their properties. Sometimes it is not so bad, sometimes there are a lot of blood.
They do not lose any right to return.